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Values & principles
32 questions · Read the revision guide
1.A community lets residents with different beliefs practise their religions peacefully. Which principle does this demonstrate?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Tolerance and respect
Tolerance means respecting other people’s beliefs and their right to practise them within the law.
2.In a democracy, how can people influence who represents them?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: By voting in elections
Elections allow eligible voters to choose representatives.
3.What does the rule of law mean for people in public office?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: They must obey the law too
The rule of law applies to public officials as well as other members of society.
4.Which action is a constructive way to support your neighbourhood?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Volunteering at a local charity
Volunteering gives time and skills to help the community.
5.A person disagrees with a government policy. Which response supports democratic participation?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Joining a peaceful campaign
Peaceful campaigns and discussion are ways to participate in a democracy.
6.Which statement best describes individual liberty?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: People can make personal choices within the law
Individual liberty allows personal freedom while respecting the law and the rights of others.
7.Which TWO actions show responsible participation in society?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Respecting other people’s rights; Helping a community organisation
Respecting rights and helping community organisations are constructive ways to contribute.
8.Does freedom of belief include the choice not to follow a religion?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Yes
Freedom of belief includes religious beliefs and the choice to have no religion.
9.Which principle is supported by treating people fairly regardless of their background?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Equality
Equality involves fair treatment and respect for people from different backgrounds.
10.Why should people listen to views different from their own?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: To understand others and take part in respectful debate
Respectful discussion allows people with different views to participate in shared public life.
11.Which TWO are fundamental British values?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: The rule of law; Individual liberty
The rule of law and individual liberty are among the fundamental British values described in government guidance.
12.Which example shows a responsibility rather than a personal preference?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Obeying the law
Obeying the law is a responsibility shared by people living in the UK.
13.Under equality law in Great Britain, race includes which of the following?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Nationality and ethnic or national origins
The protected characteristic of race includes colour, nationality and ethnic or national origins.
14.Which TWO are protected characteristics under the Equality Act in Great Britain?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Disability; Pregnancy and maternity
Disability and pregnancy or maternity are among the protected characteristics recognised by the Equality Act.
15.An employer treats an applicant less favourably because of their race. What type of discrimination does this describe?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Direct discrimination
Direct discrimination means less favourable treatment on a protected ground.
16.A workplace rule applies to everybody but unfairly disadvantages a protected group and cannot be justified. What may this be?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Indirect discrimination
An unjustified general rule may cause indirect discrimination.
17.Unwanted behaviour linked to a protected characteristic creates an offensive workplace environment. What is this called?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Harassment
Harassment can involve unwanted conduct creating an offensive environment.
18.A worker is treated unfairly because they complained about discrimination. Which term describes this?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Victimisation
Unfair treatment for raising a discrimination complaint is victimisation.
19.Which TWO could be reasonable workplace adjustments for disabled workers?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Providing suitable adapted equipment; Installing an appropriate wheelchair ramp
Reasonable adjustments can include access changes and adapted equipment that reduce substantial workplace disadvantage.
20.What is the basic purpose of equal-pay law for men and women in the same employment in Great Britain?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: To protect equal pay for equal work, subject to the law’s conditions
Equal-pay protection concerns equal work by men and women in the same employment; it does not mean every different job must have identical pay.
21.Under the Human Rights Act, what is expected of public bodies such as councils and police?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: They must respect human rights when carrying out their functions
The Act requires public bodies and other organisations carrying out public functions to respect and protect human rights.
22.What quality must the decision-maker at a fair trial have?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Independence and impartiality
A fair hearing requires an independent and impartial decision-maker.
23.Which TWO protections belong to someone accused of a criminal offence under the right to a fair trial?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Being presumed innocent until proved guilty; Being told what they are accused of
A person accused of a crime has protections including the presumption of innocence and being informed of the accusation.
24.How should freedom of expression be understood under human-rights law?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: It is protected, but lawful, necessary and proportionate restrictions can apply
Freedom of expression is protected but is not unlimited; restrictions must satisfy the relevant legal tests.
25.The right to freedom of assembly protects what kind of gathering?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Peaceful assembly, subject to lawful restrictions
The right concerns peaceful assembly and association; lawful restrictions can apply.
26.Which subjects fall within the right to respect for private and family life?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Private life, family life, home and correspondence
Article 8 protects private and family life, the home and correspondence, with qualified restrictions allowed by law.
27.An adult is threatened and pressured to marry someone against their will. What does this describe?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A forced marriage
Physical or emotional pressure to marry can amount to forced marriage; choosing whether and whom to marry matters.
28.What is a forced marriage protection order designed to do?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Protect a person facing or affected by forced marriage according to their circumstances
A court can make an order tailored to protect someone from forced marriage, including urgent protection.
29.Which TWO can be forms of domestic abuse even without a physical assault?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Coercive control; Economic abuse
Domestic abuse can include controlling behaviour and economic abuse, as well as physical or sexual violence.
30.Which TWO kinds of conduct can constitute bribery?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Requesting an advantage in exchange for improper performance of a duty; Offering an advantage to induce improper performance of a duty
Bribery offences can cover both offering improper advantages and requesting or accepting them.
31.A person summoned for jury service in England and Wales has a serious reason they cannot attend. What should they do?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Apply through the official process to change the date or be excused
A summoned juror should respond and use the official process for postponement or excusal where appropriate.
32.In England, how can parents meet their duty to provide a child with suitable full-time education?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Through school attendance or suitable education outside school, such as home education
Parents must ensure suitable full-time education for a child of compulsory school age; this may be at school or otherwise, including home education.
The United Kingdom
46 questions · Read the revision guide
1.Which country is part of the UK alongside England, Scotland and Wales?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Northern Ireland
The UK’s four constituent nations are England, Scotland, Wales and Northern Ireland.
2.Which city is the capital of Scotland?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Edinburgh
Edinburgh is Scotland’s capital city. Glasgow is its largest city.
3.A visitor travels to the Welsh capital. Which city are they visiting?
4.Which city is Northern Ireland’s capital?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Belfast
Belfast is the capital of Northern Ireland. Dublin is the capital of the Republic of Ireland.
5.Which list names the three nations on the island of Great Britain?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: England, Scotland and Wales
Great Britain is the island containing England, Scotland and Wales.
6.What is another widely used name for the Union Flag?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Union Jack
The Union Flag is also known as the Union Jack.
7.Which symbol appears on the national flag of Wales?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A red dragon
The Welsh national flag features a red dragon on a white and green background.
8.Which flower is traditionally associated with England?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Rose
The rose is a traditional national flower of England.
9.Which plant is a traditional symbol of Scotland?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Thistle
The thistle is a traditional symbol of Scotland.
10.Which saint is associated with England?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: St George
St George is England’s patron saint. His day is 23 April.
11.Which date is St Andrew’s Day?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 30 November
St Andrew’s Day, associated with Scotland, is on 30 November.
12.St David’s Day is associated with which nation?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Wales
St David is the patron saint of Wales. St David’s Day is on 1 March.
13.Which patron saint’s day falls on 17 March?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: St Patrick
St Patrick’s Day is on 17 March.
14.Where is the prehistoric monument Stonehenge?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Wiltshire
Stonehenge is in Wiltshire in southern England.
15.Which UK nation contains Ben Nevis?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Scotland
Ben Nevis in the Scottish Highlands is the highest mountain in the UK.
16.Where can you visit the Giant’s Causeway?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Northern Ireland
The Giant’s Causeway is on the north coast of Northern Ireland.
17.A national emblem shows a daffodil. Which UK nation does the flower represent?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Wales
The daffodil is a familiar floral emblem of Wales.
18.Which plant represents Northern Ireland in the floral design of the Coronation emblem?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Shamrock
The Royal Household uses the shamrock for Northern Ireland in the four-nation floral emblem.
19.How is the cross of St George shown on England’s flag?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A red upright cross on a white background
St George’s cross is red and upright, with a white background.
20.Which design is the cross of St Patrick used in the Union Flag?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A red diagonal cross on a white background
St Patrick’s cross is a red saltire, meaning a diagonal cross, on white.
21.Which national flag symbol is absent from the design of the Union Flag?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Welsh dragon
The Union Flag combines three crosses; it does not include the Welsh dragon.
22.Which TWO saints’ crosses, besides St Patrick’s, are combined in the Union Flag?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: St George’s; St Andrew’s
The three crosses in the Union Flag are associated with St George, St Andrew and St Patrick.
23.On which date is St George’s Day traditionally observed in England?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 23 April
England’s St George’s Day falls on 23 April.
24.Who is responsible for the defence and international relations of the Crown Dependencies?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The UK government
The dependencies govern their own domestic affairs, while the UK has responsibility for defence and international relations.
25.Which TWO places are Crown Dependencies rather than constituent parts of the UK?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: The Isle of Man; Jersey
Jersey and the Isle of Man are Crown Dependencies. The other dependency is the Bailiwick of Guernsey.
26.Which statement correctly describes the Crown Dependencies’ constitutional position?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: They are self-governing dependencies of the Crown and are not part of the UK
The Crown Dependencies have their own domestic institutions and are not constituent parts of the United Kingdom.
27.Which mountain is the highest in England?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Scafell Pike
Scafell Pike is England’s highest mountain. It stands in the Lake District.
28.Which lake in the Lake District is England’s deepest?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Wast Water
Wast Water, also written Wastwater, is England’s deepest lake.
29.In the Lake District, which lake has the greatest surface area?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Windermere
Windermere heads the National Park Authority’s list of the area’s largest lakes by surface area.
30.What is the Welsh name of Snowdon, the highest mountain in Wales?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Yr Wyddfa
Yr Wyddfa is the Welsh name of Snowdon, Wales’ highest summit.
31.Dartmoor’s open moorland lies in which English county?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Devon
Dartmoor National Park is in Devon in south-west England.
32.Dartmoor is known for tors. Which rock forms these striking outcrops?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Granite
Dartmoor’s distinctive tors are granite outcrops.
33.The Broads’ waterways extend across which TWO English counties?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Norfolk; Suffolk
The Broads straddle Norfolk and Suffolk in eastern England.
34.The Seven Sisters cliffs in the South Downs are mainly made of what?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Chalk
The Seven Sisters form a distinctive line of chalk sea cliffs on the Sussex coast.
35.Which National Park is the largest in the UK by area?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Cairngorms
The Cairngorms in the Scottish Highlands is the UK’s largest National Park.
36.The Pembrokeshire Coast National Park protects a landscape in which nation?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Wales
The Pembrokeshire Coast is in Wales and is particularly associated with coastal landscapes.
37.Which was the UK’s first National Park?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Peak District
The Peak District was the first area designated as a National Park in the UK.
38.Loch Lomond & The Trossachs National Park lies in which UK nation?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Scotland
Loch Lomond & The Trossachs protects landscapes in Scotland.
39.Which is the highest mountain within Loch Lomond & The Trossachs National Park?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Ben More
The park’s own fact sheet identifies Ben More as its highest mountain.
40.Which TWO of these National Parks are in Scotland?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Cairngorms; Loch Lomond & The Trossachs
Scotland’s National Parks include Cairngorms and Loch Lomond & The Trossachs; Exmoor and Dartmoor are in England.
41.Which royal residence is in Edinburgh?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Palace of Holyroodhouse
The Palace of Holyroodhouse is the official royal residence in Edinburgh.
42.The Royal Archives at Windsor Castle use an address in which English county?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Berkshire
The Royal Archives’ official postal address places Windsor Castle in Berkshire.
43.What distinction is Exmoor known for in relation to the night sky?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: It is an International Dark Sky Reserve
Exmoor’s dark skies have been recognised through its International Dark Sky Reserve designation.
44.Which river is the longest in the UK?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: River Severn
The Environment Agency identifies the Severn as the UK’s longest river.
45.Which freshwater lake in Northern Ireland has the largest surface area in the UK?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Lough Neagh
Lough Neagh lies in Northern Ireland and is the UK’s largest freshwater lake by surface area.
46.In which year was St Patrick’s cross added to create the present Union Flag?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1801
St Patrick’s cross was added in 1801, following the union with Ireland.
British history
84 questions · Read the revision guide
1.Which year marks the Roman invasion that established lasting Roman rule in much of Britain?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: AD 43
The Roman invasion of AD 43 began the period of Roman rule in much of Britain.
2.Hadrian’s Wall was built during which period?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Roman Britain
Hadrian’s Wall was built by the Romans across northern England.
3.Which year is associated with the Norman Conquest of England?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1066
The Norman Conquest followed William’s victory at Hastings in 1066.
4.Which battle helped William become king of England?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Battle of Hastings
William’s army defeated Harold’s forces at the Battle of Hastings in 1066.
5.Which king granted Magna Carta in 1215?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: King John
King John granted Magna Carta in 1215 after a conflict with his barons.
6.Which date belongs to Magna Carta?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1215
Magna Carta was first granted in 1215 and became an important reference in the development of limits on royal power.
7.What does the Latin name Magna Carta mean?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The great charter
Magna Carta means great charter.
8.Which monarch is associated with the break from the authority of the Pope in the sixteenth century?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Henry VIII
Henry VIII’s reign saw England’s break with papal authority.
9.Which queen was on the throne when the Spanish Armada was defeated?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Elizabeth I
The Spanish Armada was defeated in 1588 during Elizabeth I’s reign.
10.In which year was the Spanish Armada defeated?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1588
The defeat of the Spanish Armada took place in 1588.
11.The English Civil War was fought mainly between which TWO sides?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: The Royalists; The Parliamentarians
The Royalists supported the king; the Parliamentarians supported Parliament.
12.Which king was executed in 1649?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Charles I
Charles I was tried and executed in 1649 after the Civil War.
13.Who returned as king at the Restoration in 1660?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Charles II
Charles II became king when the monarchy was restored in 1660.
14.Which major London event took place in 1666?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Great Fire
The Great Fire of London took place in 1666.
15.Which year is associated with the Bill of Rights?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1689
The Bill of Rights was enacted in 1689 and set out limits on royal power and protections for Parliament.
16.England and Scotland united as Great Britain in which year?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1707
The union of England and Scotland took effect in 1707.
17.Which admiral is associated with Britain’s victory at Trafalgar?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Horatio Nelson
Admiral Nelson led the British fleet at Trafalgar in 1805 and was killed during the battle.
18.Which battle in 1815 ended Napoleon’s rule?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Battle of Waterloo
Napoleon was defeated at Waterloo in 1815 by allied forces including those led by the Duke of Wellington.
19.Which change is strongly associated with the Industrial Revolution?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The expansion of factories and machine production
Industrialisation increased factory production and drew people into expanding towns and cities.
20.In which year did some women first gain the UK parliamentary vote?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1918
In 1918, women aged 30 and over who met the qualifications gained the parliamentary vote. Equal voting terms with men followed in 1928.
21.When did women gain the parliamentary vote on equal terms with men?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1928
The Equal Franchise Act 1928 gave women the vote on the same age terms as men.
22.Which pair of years marks the First World War?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1914–1918
The First World War lasted from 1914 to 1918.
23.Which pair of years marks the Second World War?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1939–1945
The Second World War lasted from 1939 to 1945.
24.Who became British Prime Minister in 1940 and led the wartime coalition?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Winston Churchill
Winston Churchill became Prime Minister in May 1940.
25.In which prehistoric period was the main Stonehenge stone circle built?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The late Neolithic
The main stone circle dates to about 2500 BC, in the late Neolithic, or later Stone Age.
26.From which part of Britain did many of the smaller Stonehenge bluestones come?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: South-west Wales
Many bluestones came from the Preseli Hills in south-west Wales, a long distance from Stonehenge.
27.Which TWO positions of the sun mark Stonehenge’s main solstice alignment?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Midsummer sunrise; Midwinter sunset
The main alignment connects midsummer sunrise with midwinter sunset. It follows the solstices.
28.What name is used for the larger stones in the Stonehenge circle?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Sarsens
The larger stones are called sarsens. The smaller stones are commonly called bluestones.
29.Where is the prehistoric village of Skara Brae?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Orkney
Skara Brae is a Neolithic village in Orkney, off the north of mainland Scotland.
30.What exposed the remains of Skara Brae in 1850?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A severe storm
Storm winds and high tides removed covering sand and vegetation in 1850, exposing the ancient buildings.
31.Which description helps explain the age of Skara Brae?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: It is older than the Egyptian pyramids
The Neolithic settlement at Skara Brae predates the Egyptian pyramids.
32.The rich ship burial at Sutton Hoo provides evidence about which period?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Anglo-Saxon England
Sutton Hoo contains Anglo-Saxon burial mounds and remarkable objects from early medieval England.
33.Which archaeologist began uncovering the great ship burial at Sutton Hoo in 1939?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Basil Brown
Basil Brown excavated at Sutton Hoo for landowner Edith Pretty and uncovered the ship in 1939.
34.Alfred the Great was king of which Anglo-Saxon kingdom?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Wessex
Alfred ruled Wessex and defended it against Viking armies.
35.How did Alfred the Great support learning?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: By arranging translations of books into Anglo-Saxon
Alfred supported translating important Latin books into Anglo-Saxon to improve learning.
36.At which battle did Alfred defeat the Danes in 878?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Edington
Alfred defeated the Danish army at Edington in 878, helping Wessex survive.
37.In which year did the Black Death first reach England?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1348
The Black Death reached England in 1348 and caused a devastating loss of life.
38.Why could surviving workers seek higher wages after the Black Death?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: There were fewer workers available
The loss of population produced a labour shortage. Surviving workers could demand better pay.
39.In which year did the Peasants’ Revolt take place?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1381
The Peasants’ Revolt erupted in 1381 amid anger about taxation and social conditions.
40.Which person was a leader of the Peasants’ Revolt?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Wat Tyler
Wat Tyler was one of the leaders of the revolt in 1381.
41.In which year did the Battle of Bannockburn take place?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1314
The Battle of Bannockburn took place in June 1314 during Scotland’s Wars of Independence.
42.Who led the Scottish army to victory at Bannockburn?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Robert the Bruce
Robert the Bruce led the Scots against the army of Edward II at Bannockburn.
43.Which TWO royal houses fought for the English crown in the Wars of the Roses?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: York; Lancaster
The rival houses were York and Lancaster. Henry VII’s marriage to Elizabeth of York helped unite them.
44.Which English king was killed at the Battle of Bosworth in 1485?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Richard III
Richard III died at Bosworth when Henry Tudor’s forces defeated his army.
45.Who founded the Tudor royal dynasty?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Henry VII
Henry VII became king in 1485 and founded the Tudor dynasty.
46.Henry VII’s marriage to which woman helped unite York and Lancaster?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Elizabeth of York
Henry VII married Elizabeth of York in 1486, joining the two rival royal families.
47.How many times did Henry VIII marry?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Six
Henry VIII had six marriages. His wives included Catherine of Aragon, Anne Boleyn and Catherine Parr.
48.Which religious change did Mary I try to achieve in England?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Restore Roman Catholic worship and papal authority
Mary I restored papal authority and Roman Catholic bishops after the Protestant changes of previous reigns.
49.Why is Elizabeth I sometimes called the Virgin Queen?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: She never married
Elizabeth I chose not to marry. The title Virgin Queen became part of her public image.
50.Which monarch ordered the Bible translation known as the Authorised Version?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: James I
James I ordered the translation that became known as the Authorised, or King James, Version.
51.What title did Oliver Cromwell take in 1653?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Lord Protector
Cromwell became Lord Protector under a new system of government in December 1653.
52.What happened to the English monarchy in 1649 after the Civil War?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: It was abolished until the Restoration
The monarchy was abolished in 1649. It was restored in 1660.
53.Which monarch lost the English throne during the Glorious Revolution?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: James II
James II left the kingdom. Parliament subsequently offered the throne to William and Mary.
54.Which TWO people were offered the throne as joint monarchs in 1689?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Mary II; William III
William III and Mary II accepted the throne together after James II lost power.
55.Which institution was founded in 1694 to raise money through borrowing?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Bank of England
The Bank of England was established in 1694 to help finance the government’s war costs.
56.Who is generally regarded as Britain’s first Prime Minister?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Robert Walpole
Robert Walpole held office from 1721 to 1742 and is commonly regarded as the first British Prime Minister.
57.What did the union that took effect in 1801 create?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland
The union with Ireland took effect on 1 January 1801, creating the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland.
58.Who was known as Bonnie Prince Charlie?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Charles Edward Stuart
Charles Edward Stuart led the Jacobite rising of 1745 in an attempt to restore his family to the throne.
59.Which 1746 battle ended the Jacobite rising led by Bonnie Prince Charlie?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Culloden
Government forces defeated the Jacobite army at Culloden in April 1746.
60.Which building housed the Great Exhibition in London in 1851?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Crystal Palace in Hyde Park
The Great Exhibition displayed manufactured products from many countries in the purpose-built Crystal Palace.
61.James Watt’s separate condenser improved which machine?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The steam engine
Watt’s separate condenser reduced the steam engine’s fuel use and made it more efficient.
62.In which year did the Stockton and Darlington Railway open?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1825
The Stockton and Darlington Railway opened in September 1825, an important event in railway history.
63.Which document gave the Chartist movement its name?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The People’s Charter
The People’s Charter of 1838 set out six demands for parliamentary reform.
64.Which TWO reforms were demanded in the People’s Charter?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Voting by secret ballot; Votes for all men
Chartists sought universal male voting rights and secret ballots, among their six demands.
65.In which year was the Slavery Abolition Act passed?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1833
Parliament passed the Slavery Abolition Act in 1833. Its operation began in 1834, with important exceptions and transitional arrangements.
66.Which MP led the parliamentary campaign against the slave trade?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: William Wilberforce
William Wilberforce led the campaign in Parliament, supported by many other abolitionists and campaigners.
67.The Tolpuddle Martyrs were farm workers associated with which cause?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Organising a trade union to defend their wages
Six Dorset farm workers formed a union. Their prosecution and punishment in 1834 led to a major campaign for their freedom.
68.Which country did Britain and France fight against in the Crimean War?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Russia
Britain and France were part of an alliance fighting Russia in the Crimean War.
69.Who established the British Hotel near Balaklava to support soldiers during the Crimean War?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Mary Seacole
Mary Seacole travelled to the Crimea and set up the British Hotel, providing food, supplies and support for soldiers.
70.Who led the National Union of Women’s Suffrage Societies, which campaigned by peaceful, constitutional methods?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Millicent Fawcett
Millicent Fawcett led the National Union of Women’s Suffrage Societies, or NUWSS. It sought women’s voting rights through peaceful, constitutional campaigning.
71.The assassination of which person helped trigger the crisis leading to the First World War?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Archduke Franz Ferdinand
Franz Ferdinand was assassinated in June 1914. The resulting international crisis helped lead to war.
72.What were trenches used for on the Western Front in the First World War?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Defensive positions for soldiers
Soldiers used networks of trenches for protection and defence on the Western Front.
73.The Battle of the Somme took place during which war?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The First World War
The Somme offensive took place in 1916 on the Western Front during the First World War.
74.Which TWO air forces were the main opponents in the Battle of Britain?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: The German Luftwaffe; The Royal Air Force
RAF Fighter Command defended Britain against Germany’s Luftwaffe during the air battle of 1940.
75.What was the aim of Operation Dynamo at Dunkirk in 1940?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Evacuate Allied troops from France
Operation Dynamo rescued Allied troops from Dunkirk and nearby beaches during the German advance.
76.Where did Allied forces land on D-Day, 6 June 1944?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Normandy in France
D-Day began the Allied invasion of Normandy, helping open a new front against Nazi Germany.
77.What does the Blitz refer to in British wartime history?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A German bombing campaign against British towns and cities
The Blitz was a period of heavy German air attacks on Britain, especially from September 1940 to May 1941.
78.What is remembered on VE Day, 8 May 1945?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Victory in Europe after Germany’s surrender
VE means Victory in Europe. The war against Japan continued after the European fighting ended.
79.Which ship’s arrival at Tilbury in 1948 became a symbol of postwar Caribbean migration?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Empire Windrush
Empire Windrush brought passengers from the Caribbean to Britain in 1948 and became a symbol of postwar migration.
80.What was the main subject of the Beveridge Report of 1942?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Social insurance and welfare reform
Beveridge proposed social insurance and action against major social problems, shaping postwar welfare policy.
81.Who was Prime Minister when the NHS began in 1948?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Clement Attlee
Clement Attlee was Prime Minister from 1945 to 1951, including the creation of the NHS in 1948.
82.Who became Britain’s first woman Prime Minister in 1979?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Margaret Thatcher
Margaret Thatcher became Prime Minister in 1979, the first woman to hold the office.
83.In which year was Elizabeth II crowned at Westminster Abbey?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1953
Elizabeth II’s coronation took place on 2 June 1953, the year after she became Queen.
84.In which year was the Belfast, or Good Friday, Agreement signed?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 1998
The Belfast Agreement was reached on 10 April 1998, an important step in the Northern Ireland peace process.
Culture & society
68 questions · Read the revision guide
1.Who wrote the novel Pride and Prejudice?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Jane Austen
Pride and Prejudice is one of Jane Austen’s novels.
2.Who wrote Oliver Twist?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Charles Dickens
Charles Dickens wrote Oliver Twist, a novel about an orphan in nineteenth-century England.
3.Which work is a play by William Shakespeare?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Hamlet
Hamlet is one of Shakespeare’s tragedies.
4.Which Scottish poet is remembered on Burns Night?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Robert Burns
Burns Night honours the Scottish poet Robert Burns.
5.On which date is Burns Night celebrated?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 25 January
Burns Night takes place on 25 January, the anniversary of Robert Burns’s birth.
6.What is traditionally remembered on Bonfire Night?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Gunpowder Plot
Bonfire Night on 5 November recalls the Gunpowder Plot of 1605.
7.Which date is Christmas Day?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 25 December
Christmas Day falls on 25 December.
8.What is 26 December commonly called in the UK?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Boxing Day
The day after Christmas is Boxing Day.
9.Which flower is worn as a symbol of remembrance?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Poppy
Poppies are worn to remember those who died in war.
10.On which date is Remembrance Day?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 11 November
Remembrance Day is 11 November, the anniversary of the First World War armistice.
11.Which sport is played at the Wimbledon Championships?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Tennis
Wimbledon is a major grass-court tennis championship in London.
12.The Ashes is a contest in which sport?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Cricket
The Ashes is a Test cricket series between England and Australia.
13.Which sport is associated with the Grand National?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Horse racing
The Grand National is a horse race held at Aintree.
14.Which city hosted the Summer Olympic Games in 2012?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: London
London hosted the Summer Olympics in 2012, having previously hosted in 1908 and 1948.
15.In which year was the National Health Service established?
16.Which scientist is associated with the laws of motion and gravity?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Isaac Newton
Isaac Newton is known for his work on motion and universal gravitation.
17.Who developed the theory of evolution by natural selection and wrote On the Origin of Species?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Charles Darwin
Charles Darwin published On the Origin of Species in 1859.
18.Which scientist discovered penicillin?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Alexander Fleming
Alexander Fleming discovered penicillin in 1928.
19.In which town was William Shakespeare born?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Stratford-upon-Avon
Shakespeare was born in Stratford-upon-Avon in 1564.
20.Besides plays, which kind of short poem did Shakespeare famously write?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Sonnets
Shakespeare wrote a collection of 154 sonnets as well as plays and other poetry.
21.Who wrote the adventure novel Treasure Island?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Robert Louis Stevenson
Robert Louis Stevenson wrote Treasure Island, which was published as a book in 1883.
22.Who created the detective Sherlock Holmes?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Arthur Conan Doyle
Arthur Conan Doyle created Sherlock Holmes and wrote stories about his investigations.
23.Which TWO fictional detectives were created by Agatha Christie?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Miss Marple; Hercule Poirot
Hercule Poirot and Miss Marple are two of Agatha Christie’s best-known detective characters.
24.Who wrote the original Harry Potter novels?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: J. K. Rowling
J. K. Rowling wrote the Harry Potter series, beginning with Harry Potter and the Philosopher’s Stone.
25.Which TWO books were written by J. R. R. Tolkien?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: The Hobbit; The Lord of the Rings
The Hobbit and The Lord of the Rings are works by J. R. R. Tolkien, set in his imagined Middle-earth.
26.Who wrote Animal Farm and Nineteen Eighty-Four?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: George Orwell
George Orwell wrote both novels. They explore political power and its abuse.
27.Which Nobel Prize-winning writer wrote Lord of the Flies?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: William Golding
William Golding’s first novel, Lord of the Flies, appeared in 1954. He won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1983.
28.T. S. Eliot received the 1948 Nobel Prize in Literature principally for work in which field?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Poetry
Eliot’s Nobel award recognised his contribution to poetry.
29.The National Eisteddfod especially celebrates which language and culture?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Welsh
The National Eisteddfod is a major celebration of Wales, Welsh culture and the Welsh language.
30.What is Hogmanay in Scotland?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: New Year’s Eve
Hogmanay is the Scottish name for New Year’s Eve, on 31 December.
31.Which festival is widely known as a Hindu festival of lights?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Diwali
Diwali celebrates light overcoming darkness. Small lamps and colourful decorations are part of many celebrations.
32.Vaisakhi has particular importance for which religious community?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Sikhs
For Sikhs, Vaisakhi recalls the founding of the Khalsa by Guru Gobind Singh in 1699.
33.Which Muslim festival marks the end of Ramadan?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Eid al-Fitr
Eid al-Fitr follows Ramadan, the Muslim month of fasting.
34.What is the name of the Christian season of reflection leading up to Easter?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Lent
Lent is a season of preparation and reflection before Easter.
35.Which other name is used for Pancake Day?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Shrove Tuesday
Pancake Day is Shrove Tuesday, immediately before Ash Wednesday begins Lent.
36.What do Christians remember on Good Friday?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The death of Jesus on the cross
Good Friday commemorates Jesus’ crucifixion. It comes before Easter Sunday.
37.What do Christians celebrate at Easter?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The resurrection of Jesus
Easter celebrates the Christian belief that Jesus rose from the dead.
38.Which conservation charity was founded in 1895 by Octavia Hill and two others?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The National Trust
Octavia Hill, Robert Hunter and Hardwicke Rawnsley founded the National Trust to protect places and heritage.
39.In a traditional Scottish meal of haggis, neeps and tatties, what are tatties?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Potatoes
Tatties means potatoes. Neeps are turnips, traditionally served alongside haggis.
40.How are traditional Welsh cakes usually cooked?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: On a hot griddle
Welsh cakes are traditionally cooked on a griddle, rather than baked like many other cakes.
41.What is the main lifesaving work of the RNLI?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Rescuing people at sea
The RNLI operates lifeboats and beach lifeguard services, with volunteers playing a central role.
42.Which instruments are central to the Royal Edinburgh Military Tattoo’s pipe bands?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Bagpipes and drums
Pipers and drummers are a major part of the Royal Edinburgh Military Tattoo’s musical tradition.
43.The BBC Proms is best known as a festival of which kind of music?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Classical music
The Proms is a major classical music festival, with many concerts at the Royal Albert Hall.
44.Which composer wrote Messiah?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: George Frideric Handel
Handel composed Messiah in 1741. It is one of his best-known works.
45.Who composed the Pomp and Circumstance marches?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Edward Elgar
The Pomp and Circumstance marches are orchestral works by Edward Elgar.
46.In which city did the Beatles develop their early following at the Cavern Club?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Liverpool
The Beatles developed their live act and early following at Liverpool’s Cavern Club.
47.On which London riverbank is the National Theatre located?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The South Bank of the Thames
The National Theatre is on the South Bank of the River Thames in London.
48.What is the modern Globe Theatre in London?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A reconstruction of an open-air theatre associated with Shakespeare
The modern Globe Theatre is an open-air reconstruction that opened in 1997, inspired by Shakespeare’s theatre.
49.Which TWO British artists are especially associated with landscape painting in the early nineteenth century?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: J. M. W. Turner; John Constable
Turner and Constable painted landscapes and explored light, weather and the natural world.
50.Which British artist painted Dedham Vale in 1802?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: John Constable
John Constable’s Dedham Vale is a landscape painting dating from 1802.
51.For which art form is Barbara Hepworth particularly known?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Sculpture
Barbara Hepworth was a sculptor known for forms carved in wood and stone and works cast in metal.
52.Which British artist created many sculptures of reclining human figures?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Henry Moore
Reclining figures are a recurring subject in Henry Moore’s sculpture.
53.Which art form is David Hockney especially known for?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Painting
David Hockney works in painting and other visual media, including printmaking and photography.
54.Which nation won the men’s Rugby World Cup in 2003?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: England
England defeated Australia in the 2003 final in Sydney, winning 20–17 after extra time.
55.Who captained England when they won the men’s football World Cup in 1966?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Bobby Moore
Bobby Moore captained England’s World Cup-winning team in 1966.
56.What athletic milestone did Roger Bannister achieve in 1954?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The first recorded mile in under four minutes
Bannister ran a mile in 3 minutes 59.4 seconds at Oxford in May 1954.
57.In which event did Jessica Ennis-Hill win Olympic gold at London 2012?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Heptathlon
Jessica Ennis-Hill won the heptathlon, a competition combining seven athletics events.
58.In which TWO running events did Mo Farah win gold at London 2012?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: 5,000 metres; 10,000 metres
Farah won both the 5,000-metre and 10,000-metre races at London 2012.
59.In which sport did Ellie Simmonds win Paralympic gold medals?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Swimming
Ellie Simmonds became a Paralympic swimming champion, first winning gold at Beijing in 2008.
60.Tanni Grey-Thompson won her Paralympic gold medals in which sport?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Wheelchair athletics
Tanni Grey-Thompson won 11 Paralympic gold medals as a wheelchair racer.
61.Which British player won the Wimbledon men’s singles title in 2013?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Andy Murray
Andy Murray defeated Novak Djokovic in the 2013 Wimbledon final.
62.Which British woman won the Wimbledon singles title in 1977?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Virginia Wade
Virginia Wade won the women’s singles title at Wimbledon in 1977.
63.On which playing surface are the Wimbledon Championships held?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Grass
Wimbledon is played on grass courts, a distinctive feature of the Championships.
64.Whose US telephone patent was granted in March 1876?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Alexander Graham Bell
Bell’s telephone patent was granted in March 1876. Several inventors contributed to the development of telephone technology.
65.Which British scientist invented the World Wide Web while working at CERN?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Tim Berners-Lee
Tim Berners-Lee developed the World Wide Web at CERN in 1989. The Web is distinct from the Internet it uses.
66.What wartime work is Alan Turing particularly associated with at Bletchley Park?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Breaking encrypted German communications
Turing contributed to the team effort to break Enigma messages, building on earlier work by Polish codebreakers.
67.Which TWO scientists authored the 1953 Nature paper proposing the DNA double-helix model?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Francis Crick; James Watson
Watson and Crick proposed the model in their 1953 paper. The wider discovery also relied on experimental work by other researchers.
68.Peter Mansfield shared a 2003 Nobel Prize for advances in which medical technology?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI
Mansfield’s work helped develop MRI, which creates detailed images inside the body.
Government & law
70 questions · Read the revision guide
1.Which TWO Houses form the UK Parliament?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: The House of Commons; The House of Lords
The House of Commons and the House of Lords are the two Houses of the UK Parliament.
2.What does the abbreviation MP stand for?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Member of Parliament
MP stands for Member of Parliament.
3.What is the area represented by an MP called?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A constituency
Each parliamentary constituency elects one MP to the House of Commons.
4.How many parliamentary constituencies are there in the UK?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 650
There are 650 constituencies, each represented by one MP.
5.How are MPs chosen for the House of Commons?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: By election
MPs are elected by voters in their constituencies.
6.Under first past the post, which candidate wins a constituency?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The candidate with the most votes
In first past the post, the candidate who receives the most votes wins.
7.What is an election to fill one vacant Commons seat between general elections called?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A by-election
A by-election is held to fill a constituency seat that becomes vacant between general elections.
8.Who chairs debates in the House of Commons?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Speaker
The Speaker chairs Commons proceedings and maintains order.
9.Which description matches the Speaker’s role in Commons debates?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Politically impartial chair
The Speaker is expected to act impartially while chairing the House of Commons.
10.What is a proposal for a new law called before it becomes an Act?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A Bill
A Bill is a proposal for a new law or a change to an existing law.
11.What is a Bill called after completing the law-making process?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: An Act of Parliament
Once the required parliamentary stages and Royal Assent are complete, a Bill becomes an Act.
12.What is the monarch’s formal approval of a Bill called?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Royal Assent
Royal Assent is the monarch’s formal approval in the law-making process.
13.Which TWO are central functions of Parliament?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Making laws; Checking the government’s work
Parliament makes and debates laws, scrutinises the government, and considers taxation and spending.
14.What does scrutiny of the government mean?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Checking and questioning its decisions
Scrutiny means examining and questioning the government’s policies, actions and use of public money.
15.Who leads the UK government?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Prime Minister
The Prime Minister leads the government.
16.Which group consists of senior government ministers?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Cabinet
The Cabinet is made up of senior ministers and is led by the Prime Minister.
17.What are regular appointments where constituents can discuss concerns with their MP often called?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Constituency surgeries
MPs often hold constituency surgeries to hear concerns and offer help to constituents.
18.Which House is directly elected by the public?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The House of Commons
Members of the House of Commons are elected by voters.
19.Which institution is Scotland’s devolved legislature?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Scottish Parliament
The Scottish Parliament is the devolved legislature for Scotland.
20.Which name is used for the Welsh Parliament?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Senedd
The Senedd is the Welsh Parliament.
21.Which office is the UK’s Head of State?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Sovereign
The monarch is the UK’s Head of State; the Prime Minister leads the government.
22.What does describing the UK as a constitutional monarchy mean?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A hereditary monarch operates within a constitutional framework
The monarchy operates within a constitutional framework rather than exercising unrestricted personal rule.
23.Which principle guides the Sovereign’s relationship with party politics?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Remaining politically impartial
The Sovereign has a constitutional role and remains politically impartial.
24.Which London address is associated with the Prime Minister’s office?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 10 Downing Street
The Prime Minister’s Office is associated with 10 Downing Street.
25.Which government department is the UK’s economic and finance ministry?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: HM Treasury
HM Treasury oversees economic and financial policy, including public spending.
26.Which department has central responsibilities for immigration and border security?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Home Office
Immigration and border security are among the Home Office’s responsibilities.
27.Which department leads the UK’s diplomatic work and overseas relations?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Foreign, Commonwealth & Development Office
The FCDO represents and promotes the UK’s interests overseas through diplomacy and international work.
28.Which TWO policy areas are generally reserved to the UK Parliament rather than devolved?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Foreign affairs; Defence
Defence and foreign affairs are reserved matters. Devolved institutions have responsibilities in areas such as health and education.
29.Which TWO are examples of policy areas devolved to Scotland?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Health; Education
Health and education are devolved Scottish responsibilities, unlike defence and foreign affairs.
30.What does the abbreviation MSP stand for?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Member of the Scottish Parliament
An MSP is a Member of the Scottish Parliament.
31.Which institution scrutinises the Northern Ireland Executive and legislates on devolved matters?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Northern Ireland Assembly
The Northern Ireland Assembly scrutinises the Executive and makes laws in devolved areas.
32.What is Northern Ireland’s devolved government called?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Northern Ireland Executive
The Northern Ireland Executive is the devolved government; the Assembly scrutinises its work.
33.Which TWO tasks are carried out by Members of the Scottish Parliament?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Scrutinising the Scottish Government; Examining proposed Scottish laws
MSPs examine Bills, represent people and scrutinise the Scottish Government. UK foreign affairs and defence are reserved.
34.Who represents a ward when local council decisions are made in England?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: An elected local councillor
Local councillors are elected to represent people in their council area, including individual wards.
35.Which TWO are usual district or borough council services in England?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Recycling collection; Household rubbish collection
District and borough councils usually provide rubbish and recycling collection; national responsibilities are handled elsewhere.
36.In England, an ordinary planning application for a local building project is normally handled by whom?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The relevant local planning authority
Planning applications are normally considered by the relevant local authority acting as planning authority.
37.What is a unitary authority in English local government?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A single council providing the main local-government services for its area
A unitary council combines functions that are split between different council tiers in other areas.
38.Which feature of a home helps determine its Council Tax bill in Great Britain?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Its Council Tax valuation band
Council Tax calculations take account of the property’s valuation band, the council’s charge and any applicable discount or exemption.
39.What is the usual name of the historic building housing the UK Parliament?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The Palace of Westminster
The Houses of Parliament occupy the Palace of Westminster in London.
40.Who makes up the Shadow Cabinet?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Senior opposition spokespeople who follow government departments’ work
Shadow Cabinet members are senior opposition spokespeople who scrutinise the work of government ministers.
41.What is an important parliamentary job of a party whip?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Organising the party’s parliamentary business and encouraging attendance at votes
Whips help organise party business and keep members informed about parliamentary votes and expected attendance.
42.Which MP would normally be called a backbencher?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: An MP who is neither a government minister nor an opposition shadow spokesperson
Backbenchers do not hold a government ministerial or opposition frontbench spokesperson role.
43.What distinguishes Crossbench members of the House of Lords?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: They do not take a party whip and are independent of political parties
Crossbench peers are independent members who are not affiliated to a political party in the House.
44.What happens to a life peer’s title when that person dies?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: It is not inherited by their children
A life peerage lasts for the holder’s life and cannot be passed on to children.
45.Who are the Lords Spiritual?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Church of England bishops who sit in the House of Lords
The Lords Spiritual are the Church of England bishops who hold seats in the Lords.
46.A Bill certified as a money bill is concerned only with which kinds of matters?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: National taxation, public money or loans
The Commons Speaker certifies whether a Bill deals only with matters covered by the money-bill definition.
47.What is a division in parliamentary procedure?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A formal vote on a question before the House
A division records members’ votes when a House makes a decision.
48.Which TWO names are used for the Commons division lobbies?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: No; Aye
Commons members use the Aye and No lobbies. Content and Not Content are the corresponding Lords terms.
49.During Prime Minister’s Questions, who asks questions of the Prime Minister in the Commons?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Members of Parliament
PMQs is a Commons session in which MPs question the Prime Minister.
50.Why might a government department publish a Green Paper?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: To seek views on policy or legislative ideas
A Green Paper is a consultation document inviting feedback on proposals.
51.What does a government White Paper normally set out?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Policy proposals, often including plans for legislation
White Papers explain government policy proposals and may outline intended legislation.
52.Which TWO forms of evidence may a parliamentary select committee gather during an inquiry?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Written submissions; Oral evidence from witnesses
Committees can examine written and oral evidence before reporting their findings.
53.What does the Commons Public Accounts Committee principally examine?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Value for money in public spending
The Public Accounts Committee examines the economy, efficiency and effectiveness of public spending.
54.What can a freedom of information request ask a public authority to provide?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Recorded information it holds, subject to the applicable rules and exemptions
FOI concerns recorded information held by public authorities; exemptions can restrict disclosure.
55.Who can normally make a freedom of information request to a UK public authority?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Anyone, without a British-nationality requirement
GOV.UK explains that anyone can request information, regardless of age, nationality or where they live.
56.Why is judicial independence important?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Judges must decide cases impartially without improper government or outside pressure
Independent judging helps ensure decisions follow the law and facts rather than political or other improper pressure.
57.Which court hears final appeals on important points of law in civil cases from across the UK?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The UK Supreme Court
The Supreme Court hears civil appeals on points of law of the greatest public importance from across the UK; access is subject to the appeal rules.
58.In a Crown Court trial in England and Wales, who normally decides whether the defendant is guilty?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: The jury
At a Crown Court trial, the jury decides the verdict. The judge manages the trial and deals with sentencing after a conviction.
59.What is the Crown Prosecution Service’s role in England and Wales?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Prosecuting criminal cases investigated by the police and other investigators
The CPS independently prosecutes criminal cases; it is not the defendant’s lawyer or the jury.
60.A dispute over a contract between two organisations would usually be described as what kind of case?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A civil case
Civil cases deal with disputes about rights and obligations between people or organisations, including contract disputes.
61.Which description fits lay magistrates in England and Wales?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Community volunteers who hear cases with legal advice available
Magistrates are volunteers. A legal adviser helps them with law and procedure.
62.Someone is in immediate danger and urgent police assistance is needed. Which number should be called?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 999
999 is the emergency number for urgent police assistance when immediate action is needed.
63.Which telephone number is used to contact the police about a non-emergency?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: 101
101 is the police non-emergency number. Use 999 when an emergency needs immediate action.
64.How are people normally selected for jury service in England and Wales?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: At random from the electoral register
Jurors are randomly selected from the electoral register, subject to the eligibility and service rules.
65.What does a secret ballot protect?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A voter’s ability to cast their vote without publicly revealing their choice
Voting is by secret ballot, so a voter’s choice is not publicly announced as part of voting.
66.What does voting by proxy mean?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: An authorised person casts a vote on another voter’s behalf
A proxy is someone appointed to vote on a voter’s behalf under the relevant rules.
67.An eligible voter has arranged a postal vote. How do they cast their ballot?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: By completing and returning the postal voting documents as instructed
Postal voters complete their ballot and return the required documents following the instructions and deadlines.
68.After moving home, what should an eligible voter do about electoral registration?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: Register again at the new address
An eligible voter who moves home needs to update registration by registering at the new address.
69.What is the open electoral register?
Choose one answer.
Correct answer: A version of the register available for purchase, which voters can choose to opt out of
The open register is an extract available for purchase; opting out of it does not remove a voter from the full electoral register.
70.Which TWO uses of the full electoral register are described by the Electoral Commission?
Choose 2 answers.
Correct answers: Calling people for jury service; Checking credit applications
Alongside election administration, permitted uses of the full register include jury-service selection and checking credit applications.
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No. These are independent, original practice questions. The official question bank is not supplied to this site. Our 50 mock selections reuse these 300 questions in two banks; they are not 50 different banks. The 30 extra questions are separate.
Do these questions replace the official handbook?
No. GOV.UK says the test is based on the official Guide for New Residents. Use the full handbook as your main preparation material. Our bank is supplementary and does not claim complete syllabus coverage. The questions are AI-assisted; the extended bank has linked primary sources, and a complete independent human review remains pending. Read our editorial policy.
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